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September 4th, 2012, 20:43
Originally Posted by Asdraguuhl View Post
No, I never said that. My point is the following: During the 16th century, the native population was drastically reduced to a small percentage and when seeing the numbers, one would assume that the Spanish must have massacred all those people. The fact is that the main cause was the introduction of deseases to which the natives had no natural resistance. Yet many believe it was due to an organised systematic extermination and are quite vocal about it. And your post contained a tone that seemed to support that believe hence my remark.

What bothers me is the ignorance in historical facts, finger pointing, and hypocrisy especially from those whose nation has a colonial past as well.
So you are reading into my tone massacres of people rather than wiping out civilizations, which I specifically wrote? Seems like you are purposely dodging the point I was very explicitly making. And then saying it is OK because other countries did the same thing? Rather childish reasoning there.
Last edited by Thrasher; September 4th, 2012 at 21:09.
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