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September 18th, 2007, 16:37
Originally Posted by txa1265 View Post
The problem I have with using that as a cultural metric is that the obvious answer is 'both' - during the last generation, knowledge about the balancing of food types has been accompanied by the cheaper production and wider availability of food such as shrimp that previously was only regionally and seasonally available and commanded a premium price.
The real answer doesn't really matter (for the purposes of the discussion). The interesting bit was the explanations people came up with.

(According to Dubner & Levitt, the real answer is more supply-based than demand-based; specifically, there's been a revolution in shrimp farming that has dramatically increased supply and reduced prices.)

I wonder how much the answers had to do with how hungry people were?
Yup, this discussion can't be 100% serious unless we've really established that there *is* a significant disparity between Europeans and Americans in the explanations they offer. However, I think it might be interesting to assume for the sake of the discussion that this disparity exists, and see where that takes us.
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